Math Problem Statement
Let X and Y be nonempty set, let f : X \rightarrow Y be an injective mapping and let A,B \subset X. Show that f(A \cap B) = f(A) \cap f(B).
Solution
We are tasked with showing that for an injective mapping and subsets , the following holds:
Step 1: Show
We will start by showing that .
- Take any element . By definition, this means there exists some such that .
- Since , it follows that and .
- Therefore, and , which means .
Thus, every element of is also in , so:
Step 2: Show
Now, we will show the reverse inclusion .
- Take any element . By definition, this means there exist elements and such that:
- Since is injective, it follows that , because injectivity implies that only if .
- Therefore, there exists some such that .
Thus, every element of is also in , so:
Conclusion
Since we have shown both and , it follows that:
This completes the proof.
Do you have any questions or would you like further details?
5 Related Questions:
- How does this proof change if the function is not injective?
- What is the significance of injectivity in set theory and mappings?
- Can you provide an example where for a non-injective function?
- What happens if or is the empty set in this scenario?
- How can this result be extended to other set operations, like union or difference?
Tip:
Injective functions (one-to-one) preserve distinctness, making them useful when proving equalities involving set images under mappings.
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Math Problem Analysis
Mathematical Concepts
Set Theory
Injective Functions
Subset Operations
Formulas
f(A \cap B) = f(A) \cap f(B)
Theorems
Injective Mapping Property
Suitable Grade Level
College/University Level