Math Problem Statement
Let f: X → Y be a function. Let A1, A2, ..., An be subsets of X. Prove that f(∪_{i=1}^n A_i) = ∪_{i=1}^n f(A_i).
Solution
To prove that , let’s go through the proof step by step:
Proof:
Step 1: Show
- Let . By the definition of the image of a set under , this means there exists such that .
- Since , there must exist some (where ) such that .
- Therefore, , which implies .
- Thus, .
Step 2: Show
- Let . By the definition of union, this means there exists some (where ) such that .
- By the definition of the image of a set under , this means there exists such that .
- Since , we have .
- Therefore, .
- Thus, .
Step 3: Conclude the equality
- Since we have shown both and , it follows that
Would you like a deeper breakdown of any step or further examples?
Related Questions:
- How does this property extend to infinite unions?
- What happens if is not a well-defined function? Does the equality still hold?
- Can this property be applied to intersections instead of unions?
- How does the property differ if is not surjective?
- Could this proof be rewritten using a more set-theoretic notation?
Tip:
When working with proofs involving images of sets, always use the definition of the image explicitly to construct or verify the relationship.
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Math Problem Analysis
Mathematical Concepts
Set Theory
Functions and Mappings
Image of a Set
Formulas
f(∪_{i=1}^n A_i) = ∪_{i=1}^n f(A_i)
Theorems
Union Property of Functions
Image Mapping Theorem
Suitable Grade Level
Undergraduate Mathematics