Math Problem Statement
Prove that log(1 + π π₯) = πππ2 + π₯ 2 + π₯ 2 8 β π₯ 4 192
- β― β¦ β¦ β¦ β¦
Solution
To prove the given logarithmic expansion:
we can derive this step by step using Taylor series expansion.
Step 1: Taylor Series Expansion for
We know that the Taylor series for around is:
for .
Step 2: Rewrite in a suitable form
Consider the expression . We'll split this into:
This simplifies to:
Now we focus on expanding .
Step 3: Use Taylor Expansion on
Since for large , we can apply the series expansion for :
For small , the leading terms of this expansion are significant, so we use these terms:
Step 4: Combine the Results
Now we combine the expressions we obtained:
Simplify this:
Conclusion
Thus, the series expansion is:
which proves the given result.
Would you like more details, or do you have any questions?
Here are 5 related questions for further practice:
- How does the Taylor series of compare to the expansion of ?
- Can you derive the expansion for more explicitly?
- What are the conditions under which the series expansion for converges?
- How would the expansion change for higher-order terms like ?
- Can this expansion be used to approximate for large ?
Tip: Remember that logarithmic expansions can provide quick approximations for large and small values of , which is useful in various areas of analysis!
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Math Problem Analysis
Mathematical Concepts
Logarithms
Exponential Functions
Series Expansion
Taylor Series
Formulas
log(1 + e^x) = log 2 + x/2 + x^2/8 β x^4/192 + β―
Taylor series: log(1 + y) = y - y^2/2 + y^3/3 β y^4/4 + β―
Theorems
Taylor Series Expansion
Properties of Logarithms
Suitable Grade Level
Undergraduate level (Math/Calculus)