Math Problem Statement
Ans
Solution
The question in the image asks to:
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Prove using Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem (MVT) that: for .
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Hence show that:
Step 1: Applying Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem (MVT)
Lagrange's MVT states that for a differentiable function on the interval , there exists a point such that:
Let’s apply this theorem to the function , which is continuous and differentiable on .
For the interval (where ), we have: This simplifies to: where .
Since , we know that . This gives the bounds: Multiplying this inequality by , we get:
Thus, the first part of the inequality is proven.
Step 2: Proving the specific case
Let’s apply the proven inequality for and .
- First, compute .
- Then, compute .
So, we now have:
This completes the proof for the second part.
Would you like further explanation or details on any step?
5 Related Questions:
- What is the geometric interpretation of Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem?
- How can you derive tighter bounds for ?
- Why is the function used in this type of inequality proof?
- Can you apply the same theorem to functions other than logarithmic ones?
- What happens to the inequality as approaches ?
Tip:
When using the Mean Value Theorem, it's helpful to always identify where the derivative function’s behavior influences the bounds of the inequality.
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Math Problem Analysis
Mathematical Concepts
Calculus
Logarithmic Functions
Inequalities
Formulas
\( \ln\left(\frac{b}{a}\right) = \frac{1}{c}(b - a) \) for some \( c \in (a, b) \)
\( \frac{b - a}{b} < \ln\left(\frac{b}{a}\right) < \frac{b - a}{a} \)
Theorems
Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem
Suitable Grade Level
Grades 11-12 (or College Calculus)
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