Math Problem Statement

Let II and JJ be arbitrary index sets (either empty, finite, countable or uncountable) and let (Ai)iI\left(A_{i}\right)_{i\in I} and (Bj)jJ\left(B_{j}\right)_{j\in J} be tuples of arbitrary sets. Is it true that: (i,j)I×J(Ai×Aj)=(iIAi)×(jJBj)\bigcup_{(i,j)\in I\times J}(A_{i}\times A_{j})=\left(\bigcup_{i\in I}A_{i}\right)\times\left(\bigcup_{j\in J}B_{j}\right)? Please be brief.

Solution

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Math Problem Analysis

Mathematical Concepts

Set Theory
Cartesian Products
Indexed Families of Sets
Unions of Sets

Formulas

\bigcup_{(i,j) \in I \times J} (A_i \times B_j) = \left( \bigcup_{i \in I} A_i \right) \times \left( \bigcup_{j \in J} B_j \right)

Theorems

Distributivity of Cartesian Products over Unions

Suitable Grade Level

Undergraduate (Mathematics), Advanced Set Theory