To find the marked value of the handbag, we need to account for both the discounts applied.

1. Let the marked price of the handbag be $M$.

2. The first discount of 35% means the price after the first discount is: $M - 0.35M = 0.65M$

3. The second discount of 10% on cash payment means the price after the second discount is: $0.65M - 0.10 \times 0.65M = 0.65M \times 0.90 = 0.585M$

4. According to the problem, the final price paid is ₹585. Therefore: $0.585M = 585$

5. Solving for $M$: $M = \frac{585}{0.585} = 1000$

Hence, the marked value of the handbag is ₹1000.

Would you like further details or have any questions?

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Tip: When dealing with successive discounts, always apply each discount step by step rather than adding the percentages together.