Math Problem Statement
Solution
To prove that the union of two countable sets and is countable, we will proceed as follows:
Step-by-Step Proof
Definitions:
- Countable Set: A set is countable if there exists a bijection between and the set of natural numbers , meaning can either be finite or countably infinite.
- Union of Two Sets: The union consists of all elements in , , or both.
Goal:
We need to prove that if and are countable sets, then their union is also countable.
Strategy:
We construct functions from and to the set and use these to define a function on the union .
Step 1: Countable Functions for and
Since and are countable, there exist bijections:
Thus, each element in and can be uniquely assigned a natural number.
Step 2: Define a Function on the Union
To construct a bijection for , we must map the elements of to .
There are two cases to consider:
- , meaning and may have some common elements.
- , meaning and are disjoint.
To handle both cases, we can proceed as follows:
- Consider the function defined by: \begin{cases} (f(z), 0) & \text{if } z \in X \setminus Y \\ (g(z), 1) & \text{if } z \in Y \setminus X \\ (f(z), 0) & \text{if } z \in X \cap Y \end{cases}$$
This function creates a distinct pair for elements of and by pairing the outputs of and with an indicator value (0 or 1), ensuring that even if an element is shared by both sets, it is assigned consistently.
Step 3: Map to
Next, we need to show that is countable. This can be done by interleaving the pairs to produce a single natural number using a known bijection between and . A simple function that works is: This function maps all pairs in to distinct natural numbers, preserving the countability of the union.
Step 4: Conclude that is Countable
The composition of the function with the bijection gives a bijection from to , showing that is countable.
Conclusion:
We have constructed a bijection from the union to , proving that the union of two countable sets is countable.
Would you like more details or have any questions on this?
Here are 5 follow-up questions to deepen your understanding:
- What would change in the proof if or were finite instead of infinite?
- How does the concept of countability relate to uncountable sets like ?
- Can you extend this proof to a finite or infinite union of countable sets?
- How does the interleaving method for relate to Cantor’s pairing function?
- How would this proof be adjusted if and were not disjoint?
Tip: The union of any finite number of countable sets is always countable, but the infinite case requires a more careful treatment involving the axiom of choice!
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Math Problem Analysis
Mathematical Concepts
Set Theory
Countability
Functions
Bijections
Formulas
φ(n, 0) = 2n, φ(n, 1) = 2n + 1
Theorems
Countable Union Theorem
Bijection between Natural Numbers and Cartesian Product
Suitable Grade Level
University level (Introductory Set Theory or Discrete Mathematics)