Math Problem Statement

a|b π‘Ž | 𝑏 implies Question 1Answer

a. b=a.k 𝑏

π‘Ž . π‘˜ for some k∈Z π‘˜ ∈ 𝑍

b. a=b.k π‘Ž

𝑏 . π‘˜ for some k∈Z π‘˜ ∈ 𝑍

c. the quotient obtained when a π‘Ž is divided by b 𝑏

d. the remainder obtained when a π‘Ž is divided by b

Solution

The notation a∣ba \mid b (read as "a divides b") implies that aa is a divisor of bb. This means that bb can be expressed as a product of aa and some integer kk, i.e., b=aβ‹…kb = a \cdot k where k∈Zk \in \mathbb{Z} (the set of all integers).

Therefore, the correct answer is:

a. b=aβ‹…kb = a \cdot k for some k∈Zk \in \mathbb{Z}

Explanation:

  • a∣ba \mid b means aa divides bb, so there exists an integer kk such that b=aβ‹…kb = a \cdot k.
  • This implies that bb is a multiple of aa, and the division ba\frac{b}{a} yields an integer quotient.

Additional Questions:

  1. What does it mean if aa does not divide bb (i.e., a∀ba \nmid b)?
  2. Can the divisor aa be negative, and what does it imply if kk is negative?
  3. If a∣ba \mid b, what can you say about the relationship between the greatest common divisor (GCD) of aa and bb?
  4. How is the divisibility property a∣ba \mid b related to prime numbers?
  5. If a∣ba \mid b and b∣cb \mid c, what can be concluded about the relationship between aa and cc?

Tip:

Remember that for any integer aa, a∣0a \mid 0 because 0=aΓ—00 = a \times 0, but 0∣a0 \mid a is only true if a=0a = 0.

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Math Problem Analysis

Mathematical Concepts

Number Theory
Divisibility

Formulas

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Theorems

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Suitable Grade Level

Grades 7-9