Math Problem Statement
Consider the expression $ e^x-ln(cos^2(x))+ln(1+tan^2(x))$ and then simplify it into a single term
Solution
We are given the expression:
Let's simplify this step by step.
Step 1: Simplifying
We use the logarithmic property , where and . Thus,
So the expression becomes:
Step 2: Simplifying
Recall the trigonometric identity . Using this identity, we have:
Now the expression becomes:
Step 3: Using the identity
Next, we use the fact that . Therefore, we can rewrite as:
Substituting this into the expression, we get:
This simplifies further to:
Final Simplified Expression:
Thus, the simplified expression is:
Would you like a deeper explanation of any steps, or do you have further questions?
Related questions:
- How does the identity come from the Pythagorean identity?
- Can the logarithmic properties used here be applied to other trigonometric functions?
- What happens if we differentiate this simplified expression with respect to ?
- How would this expression change if the original had instead of ?
- Could we simplify the expression further if had specific values like ?
Tip:
Always remember to apply the logarithmic properties carefully, especially when dealing with powers and products of functions inside the logarithm!
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Math Problem Analysis
Mathematical Concepts
Exponential Functions
Logarithmic Properties
Trigonometric Identities
Formulas
ln(a^b) = b * ln(a)
1 + tan^2(x) = sec^2(x)
sec(x) = 1/cos(x)
Theorems
Logarithmic Rules
Trigonometric Identities
Suitable Grade Level
Grades 11-12
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