Math Problem Statement

Suppose X1,X2,...,Xn are independent random variables with (finite) mean µ and

variance 1. Let n be a “very large”1 number.

(a) What distribution would you expect the random variable 1 n ∑n i=1(Xi - µ) to approximately have? [Hint: What do the random variables 1 n ∑n i=1(Xi -µ) converge to as n → ∞?]

Solution

To determine the approximate distribution of the random variable

1ni=1n(Xiμ),\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n (X_i - \mu),

we can analyze it using the Central Limit Theorem (CLT). Here's the breakdown:


Step 1: Analyze the random variable

The given random variable is

1ni=1n(Xiμ).\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n (X_i - \mu).

Since μ=E[Xi]\mu = \mathbb{E}[X_i], the term XiμX_i - \mu represents the deviation of XiX_i from its mean. The expectation and variance of this random variable are:

  1. Mean: By linearity of expectation: [ \mathbb{E}\left[\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n (X_i - \mu)\right] = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n \mathbb{E}[X_i - \mu] = \frac{1}{n} \cdot 0 = 0. ]

  2. Variance: Since X1,X2,,XnX_1, X_2, \ldots, X_n are independent and have variance 1: Var(1ni=1n(Xiμ))=1n2i=1nVar(Xiμ)=1n2n1=1n.\text{Var}\left(\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n (X_i - \mu)\right) = \frac{1}{n^2} \sum_{i=1}^n \text{Var}(X_i - \mu) = \frac{1}{n^2} \cdot n \cdot 1 = \frac{1}{n}.

Thus, the random variable has mean 0 and variance 1n\frac{1}{n}.


Step 2: Central Limit Theorem Application

As nn \to \infty, the Central Limit Theorem states that the sum (or average) of a large number of independent and identically distributed random variables converges in distribution to a normal (Gaussian) distribution.

  • The scaled sum: n(1ni=1n(Xiμ))\sqrt{n} \left(\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n (X_i - \mu)\right) converges in distribution to a standard normal distribution N(0,1)\mathcal{N}(0, 1) as nn \to \infty.

Step 3: Convergence of the Original Random Variable

The random variable 1ni=1n(Xiμ)\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n (X_i - \mu) therefore converges to a normal distribution with mean 0 and variance 1n\frac{1}{n}.

Hence, as nn becomes "very large," the random variable 1ni=1n(Xiμ)\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n (X_i - \mu) is approximately:

N(0,1n).\mathcal{N}\left(0, \frac{1}{n}\right).


Final Answer:

The distribution of 1ni=1n(Xiμ)\frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n (X_i - \mu) is approximately:

N(0,1n).\mathcal{N}\left(0, \frac{1}{n}\right).


5 Related Questions:

  1. How does the variance of the sample mean change as nn increases?
  2. Why is the Central Limit Theorem applicable in this case?
  3. What happens if the XiX_i random variables are not independent?
  4. How does this result connect to the Law of Large Numbers?
  5. What are practical examples where this approximation is useful?

Tip:

When working with sums or averages of random variables, always check conditions like independence, identical distributions, and finite variance to determine if the CLT applies.

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Math Problem Analysis

Mathematical Concepts

Probability Theory
Statistics
Central Limit Theorem

Formulas

Mean: E[(1/n) ∑ (Xi - µ)] = 0
Variance: Var[(1/n) ∑ (Xi - µ)] = 1/n

Theorems

Central Limit Theorem
Law of Large Numbers

Suitable Grade Level

Undergraduate (Probability/Statistics)