Math Problem Statement

answer

Convert the following integral to cylindrical coordinates and evaluate: ∫₀¹ ∫₋√(1−x²)√(1−x²) ∫₋(x²+y²)^(x²+y²) 21xy² dz dy dx.

Solution

Let's break down the given problem, which involves converting the triple integral from Cartesian to cylindrical coordinates and then evaluating the result.

Original Integral:

011x21x2(x2+y2)x2+y221xy2dzdydx\int_0^1 \int_{-\sqrt{1-x^2}}^{\sqrt{1-x^2}} \int_{-(x^2 + y^2)}^{x^2 + y^2} 21xy^2 \, dz \, dy \, dx

Step 1: Convert to cylindrical coordinates

In cylindrical coordinates:

  • x=rcosθx = r \cos \theta
  • y=rsinθy = r \sin \theta
  • z=zz = z
  • The Jacobian determinant for converting from Cartesian to cylindrical coordinates is rr, which means that the volume element dxdydzdx \, dy \, dz becomes rdzdrdθr \, dz \, dr \, d\theta.

The integral x2+y2=r2x^2 + y^2 = r^2, and the bounds will adjust accordingly:

  • x2+y2x^2 + y^2 becomes r2r^2.
  • The limits on zz remain the same, but we rewrite them in terms of rr: z[r2,r2]z \in [-r^2, r^2].

Step 2: Rewriting the integral in cylindrical coordinates

The integrand 21xy221xy^2 becomes: 21xy2=21r3cosθsin2θ21xy^2 = 21r^3 \cos \theta \sin^2 \theta

Now, we can rewrite the integral in cylindrical coordinates: 02π01r2r221r3cosθsin2θdzrdrdθ\int_0^{2\pi} \int_0^1 \int_{-r^2}^{r^2} 21r^3 \cos \theta \sin^2 \theta \, dz \, r \, dr \, d\theta

Step 3: Simplifying the integral

First, evaluate the zz-integral. The limits for zz are from r2-r^2 to r2r^2, and the integrand is independent of zz, so the result is just the length of the interval 2r22r^2: r2r2dz=2r2\int_{-r^2}^{r^2} dz = 2r^2

Thus, the integral simplifies to:

= 42 \int_0^{2\pi} \int_0^1 r^6 \cos \theta \sin^2 \theta \, dr \, d\theta$$ ### Step 4: Break down the angular part Now, let's focus on the $$\theta$$-integral: $$\int_0^{2\pi} \cos \theta \sin^2 \theta \, d\theta$$ We can rewrite $$\sin^2 \theta$$ as $$\frac{1 - \cos(2\theta)}{2}$$. This gives: $$\int_0^{2\pi} \cos \theta \cdot \frac{1 - \cos(2\theta)}{2} \, d\theta = \frac{1}{2} \int_0^{2\pi} \left( \cos \theta - \cos \theta \cos(2\theta) \right) d\theta$$ The first term integrates to zero because $$\int_0^{2\pi} \cos \theta \, d\theta = 0$$. The second term also integrates to zero since the product $$\cos \theta \cos(2\theta)$$ yields a periodic function with an average value of zero over the interval $$[0, 2\pi]$$. Thus, the angular integral evaluates to zero: $$\int_0^{2\pi} \cos \theta \sin^2 \theta \, d\theta = 0$$ ### Step 5: Conclusion Since the angular part of the integral evaluates to zero, the entire integral evaluates to zero as well. Therefore, the value of the given integral is: $$\boxed{0}$$ Would you like further clarification or details on any specific part? Here are five related questions to deepen your understanding: 1. How do you convert Cartesian to cylindrical coordinates in general? 2. What is the Jacobian determinant, and why is it important in changing coordinate systems? 3. Can you give an example of an integral that doesn't simplify to zero when changing to cylindrical coordinates? 4. How does the symmetry of the function affect the outcome of an integral in cylindrical coordinates? 5. Why do angular integrals involving $$\cos \theta$$ often evaluate to zero over $$[0, 2\pi]$$? **Tip:** When converting to cylindrical or spherical coordinates, always remember to include the Jacobian determinant for the correct volume element.

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Math Problem Analysis

Mathematical Concepts

Multivariable Calculus
Cylindrical Coordinates
Triple Integrals
Jacobian Transformation

Formulas

x = r cos(θ)
y = r sin(θ)
z = z
dx dy dz = r dz dr dθ (Jacobian)

Theorems

Jacobian determinant
Integration in cylindrical coordinates

Suitable Grade Level

University Level (Calculus III)