No, a 40% discount followed by an additional 10% discount is not the same as a 50% discount. This is because the second discount is applied to the already reduced price, not the original price.

Here's how you can calculate it:

1. Start with the original price $P$.

2. First discount: Apply the 40% discount. \text{Price after 40% discount} = P - 0.4P = 0.6P

3. Second discount: Apply the additional 10% discount to the new price. \text{Price after additional 10% discount} = 0.6P - 0.1 \times 0.6P = 0.6P \times 0.9 = 0.54P

So, the final price is 54% of the original price, which means the total discount is:

$100\% - 54\% = 46\%$

Therefore, the total discount is 46%, not 50%.

Would you like more details or have any questions? Here are some related questions:

1. What would the final price be if the original price is $100?
2. How would the total discount change if the additional discount was 20% instead of 10%?
3. If the store offered a 50% discount instead of the combined 40% and 10%, what would be the price difference?
4. How would the discount calculation change if the order of the discounts were reversed?
5. What is the equivalent single discount percentage for a 40% discount followed by a 20% discount?

Tip: When multiple percentage discounts are applied sequentially, the total discount is not simply the sum of the percentages; it's a cumulative effect, which is less than the sum.