Math Problem Statement
Show that Z 1 0 x m−1 (1 − x) n−1 (a + bx) m+n dx = 1 (a + b)ma n B(m, n), where a ̸= 0, a + b ̸= 0.
Solution
To show that
where is the Beta function defined as
we can start by manipulating the left-hand side.
Step 1: Change of Variables
Let us define a change of variables . Then, we can find in terms of :
Step 2: Adjust the Integration Limits
When , , and when , . Therefore, the integral becomes:
Step 3: Simplifying the Expression
Now simplify :
Substituting this back, we get:
Step 4: Factor Out Constants
Factoring out constants gives:
Step 5: Recognizing the Beta Function
The integral
is a form that can be transformed back to the Beta function:
Step 6: Final Result
Thus, we combine everything:
This proves the required equality.
Summary
We have shown that
Do you want more details on any specific part of this proof, or do you have questions? Here are some related questions you might consider:
- What is the derivation of the Beta function ?
- How does the change of variables help in evaluating integrals?
- What are some applications of the Beta function in probability?
- Can this method be applied to other integrals involving polynomial terms?
- What conditions are necessary for the convergence of this integral?
Tip: Familiarize yourself with common integral transformations to simplify complex integrals efficiently.
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Math Problem Analysis
Mathematical Concepts
Calculus
Integration
Beta Function
Change of Variables
Formulas
\( B(m, n) = \int_0^1 x^{m-1} (1 - x)^{n-1} \, dx \)
\( \int_0^1 x^{m-1} (1 - x)^{n-1} (a + bx)^{-(m+n)} \, dx = \frac{1}{(a + b)^m a^n} B(m, n) \)
Theorems
Beta Function
Suitable Grade Level
Undergraduate Mathematics
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