Math Problem Statement

By using Lagrange’s mean value theorem, or otherwise, show that (a) sin(x) ≤ x for all x ∈ [0, +∞). (b) (1 + x)^p ≥ 1 + px for any p ≥ 1 and x ≥ 0.

Solution

Let's solve these step by step using Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem or related reasoning.

(a) Prove that sinxx\sin x \leq x for all x[0,+)x \in [0, +\infty)

Using Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem:

  1. Define f(x)=sinxf(x) = \sin x. It is differentiable and continuous on [0,x][0, x] for x>0x > 0.
  2. By the Mean Value Theorem, there exists some c(0,x)c \in (0, x) such that: f(c)=f(x)f(0)x0f'(c) = \frac{f(x) - f(0)}{x - 0} Substituting f(x)=sinxf(x) = \sin x and f(0)=sin(0)=0f(0) = \sin(0) = 0, we get: cos(c)=sinxx.\cos(c) = \frac{\sin x}{x}. Since cos(c)1\cos(c) \leq 1 for all c[0,x]c \in [0, x], we deduce that: sinxx1    sinxx.\frac{\sin x}{x} \leq 1 \implies \sin x \leq x.
  3. This inequality holds for all x>0x > 0. For x=0x = 0, equality holds (sin0=0\sin 0 = 0).

Thus, sinxx\sin x \leq x for x[0,+)x \in [0, +\infty).


(b) Prove that (1+x)p1+px(1 + x)^p \geq 1 + px for any p1p \geq 1 and x0x \geq 0

Using the Binomial Theorem:

  1. Expand (1+x)p(1 + x)^p using the Binomial Theorem: (1+x)p=1+px+p(p1)2!x2+p(p1)(p2)3!x3+(1 + x)^p = 1 + px + \frac{p(p-1)}{2!}x^2 + \frac{p(p-1)(p-2)}{3!}x^3 + \dots Each term after pxpx is non-negative because p1p \geq 1 and x0x \geq 0. Hence: (1+x)p1+px.(1 + x)^p \geq 1 + px.

Alternatively, Using Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem:

  1. Define f(x)=(1+x)ppx1f(x) = (1 + x)^p - px - 1. We need to show that f(x)0f(x) \geq 0 for x0x \geq 0.
  2. Compute f(x)f'(x): f(x)=p(1+x)p1p.f'(x) = p(1 + x)^{p-1} - p. Since (1+x)p11(1 + x)^{p-1} \geq 1 for x0x \geq 0, we have f(x)0f'(x) \geq 0, so f(x)f(x) is non-decreasing.
  3. At x=0x = 0, f(0)=0f(0) = 0. Since f(x)f(x) is non-decreasing and f(0)=0f(0) = 0, f(x)0f(x) \geq 0 for x0x \geq 0.

Thus, (1+x)p1+px(1 + x)^p \geq 1 + px for p1p \geq 1 and x0x \geq 0.


Would you like a detailed explanation of any of these steps or alternative proofs?

Related Questions:

  1. How does Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem apply in other inequalities?
  2. Can this inequality (1+x)p1+px(1 + x)^p \geq 1 + px be extended for 0<p<10 < p < 1?
  3. What is the geometric interpretation of sinxx\sin x \leq x?
  4. How can Taylor expansions be used to prove these inequalities?
  5. Are there other theorems that can be used to derive similar inequalities?

Tip:

When applying the Mean Value Theorem, always ensure that the function is continuous and differentiable on the relevant interval.

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Math Problem Analysis

Mathematical Concepts

Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem
Inequalities
Trigonometry
Exponents

Formulas

Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem: f'(c) = (f(b) - f(a)) / (b - a)
Binomial Expansion: (1 + x)^p = 1 + px + higher-order terms

Theorems

Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem
Binomial Theorem

Suitable Grade Level

Undergraduate Mathematics