Math Problem Statement

Show that the inverse of a one-one, onto function is also one-one and onto.

Solution

The question in the image reads:

"Q5. Show that the inverse of a one-one, onto function is also one-one and onto."

This is a classic question in the study of functions, specifically about bijections. Let's break down the proof.

Definitions:

  • A one-one function (or injective function) ensures that no two distinct elements in the domain map to the same element in the codomain.
  • An onto function (or surjective function) ensures that every element in the codomain has a preimage in the domain.
  • A bijective function is both one-one (injective) and onto (surjective). Only bijective functions have inverses.

Proof:

Let f:ABf : A \to B be a bijective function, which means it is both one-one (injective) and onto (surjective). We need to show that the inverse function f1:BAf^{-1} : B \to A is also one-one and onto.

  1. Injective property of f1f^{-1}:

    • Suppose f1(y1)=f1(y2)f^{-1}(y_1) = f^{-1}(y_2) for some y1,y2By_1, y_2 \in B.
    • Applying ff to both sides, we get f(f1(y1))=f(f1(y2))f(f^{-1}(y_1)) = f(f^{-1}(y_2)), which simplifies to y1=y2y_1 = y_2, since f(f1(y))=yf(f^{-1}(y)) = y for any yBy \in B.
    • Therefore, f1f^{-1} is injective.
  2. Surjective property of f1f^{-1}:

    • Let xAx \in A. Since ff is surjective, there exists some yBy \in B such that f(x)=yf(x) = y.
    • Applying f1f^{-1} to both sides, we get f1(y)=xf^{-1}(y) = x.
    • Thus, for every xAx \in A, there exists a yBy \in B such that f1(y)=xf^{-1}(y) = x, proving that f1f^{-1} is surjective.

Since f1f^{-1} is both injective and surjective, it is also bijective. Hence, the inverse of a one-one and onto function is itself one-one and onto.

Let me know if you'd like further details or have any other questions!

Here are 5 follow-up questions for further exploration:

  1. How do you prove that a function is bijective using examples?
  2. What are some real-life applications of bijective functions?
  3. How can a non-bijective function be modified to have an inverse?
  4. Can a function be injective but not surjective? Explain with an example.
  5. What happens to the domain and codomain when taking the inverse of a bijection?

Tip: Remember that only bijective functions have inverses. If a function is not both one-one and onto, it does not have an inverse.

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Math Problem Analysis

Mathematical Concepts

Functions
Inverse Functions
Injective (One-One) Functions
Surjective (Onto) Functions
Bijective Functions

Formulas

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Theorems

Properties of Bijective Functions
Inverse Function Theorem

Suitable Grade Level

Undergraduate Mathematics (or advanced high school level)