Math Problem Statement

Prove that for all n ∈ N: ∑ (n on top), (i=0 below), (-1)^n * (n choose i) = 0

Solution

To prove that

i=0n(1)n(ni)=0\sum_{i=0}^{n} (-1)^n \binom{n}{i} = 0

Step 1: Understand the summation The sum involves the binomial coefficient (ni)\binom{n}{i}, which represents the number of ways to choose ii elements from nn, multiplied by the alternating sign factor (1)n(-1)^n. Let’s analyze it.

Step 2: Factor out (1)n(-1)^n Since (1)n(-1)^n is independent of ii, we can factor it out of the summation: i=0n(1)n(ni)=(1)ni=0n(ni).\sum_{i=0}^{n} (-1)^n \binom{n}{i} = (-1)^n \sum_{i=0}^{n} \binom{n}{i}.

Step 3: Evaluate i=0n(ni)\sum_{i=0}^{n} \binom{n}{i} From the binomial theorem, we know that: i=0n(ni)=(1+1)n=2n.\sum_{i=0}^{n} \binom{n}{i} = (1 + 1)^n = 2^n.

Thus: i=0n(ni)=2n.\sum_{i=0}^{n} \binom{n}{i} = 2^n.

Step 4: Substitute back Now substitute this result into the original equation: i=0n(1)n(ni)=(1)n2n.\sum_{i=0}^{n} (-1)^n \binom{n}{i} = (-1)^n \cdot 2^n.

Step 5: Evaluate (1)n2n(-1)^n \cdot 2^n The expression (1)n2n(-1)^n \cdot 2^n is simply 2n-2^n when nn is odd, and +2n+2^n when nn is even.

Correction to the question:

The term was misstated - it reduces . no T .

Shall explained if

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Math Problem Analysis

Mathematical Concepts

Binomial Coefficients
Alternating Series
Summation
Natural Numbers

Formulas

Summation formula: ∑_{i=0}^{n} (-1)^n * binomial(n, i)
Binomial coefficient: binomial(n, i) = n! / [i! * (n-i)!]
Binomial theorem: ∑_{i=0}^{n} binomial(n, i) * x^i * y^(n-i) = (x + y)^n

Theorems

Binomial Theorem

Suitable Grade Level

Grades 11-12