Math Problem Statement
Let G be group, and let f : G → G be a function defined by f (g) = g2 for g ∈ G. Prove that if f is a homomorphism, then G is abelian.
Solution
To prove that if , defined by , is a homomorphism, then must be abelian:
Step 1: Homomorphism property
If is a homomorphism, it satisfies the condition:
Using the definition of , this becomes:
Step 2: Expanding
Using the group operation, means . By associativity of the group operation, we can write:
On the other hand, means:
Thus, the homomorphism condition implies:
Step 3: Simplifying the equality
To simplify, cancel from the left of both sides:
Cancel from the right of both sides:
Step 4: Conclusion
The equality for arbitrary shows that the group is abelian, because the group operation is commutative.
Final Statement
If is a homomorphism, then must be abelian.
Do you want further clarifications, or have any related questions? Here are some follow-up questions you might consider:
- What are other examples of homomorphisms that imply specific group properties?
- What happens if for a general ?
- Can be a homomorphism in non-abelian groups?
- How does this result generalize to finite groups?
- What is the significance of in cyclic groups?
Tip: Always verify the group properties when dealing with homomorphisms; it often reveals important structural insights.
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Math Problem Analysis
Mathematical Concepts
Group Theory
Homomorphisms
Abelian Groups
Formulas
f(g) = g²
f(g₁g₂) = f(g₁)f(g₂)
Theorems
Homomorphism property
Commutativity of groups
Suitable Grade Level
Grades 11-12